UPSC General Studies Paper Set-D Questions with Explanations

1. Consider the following assertion:

In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

Which of the followiupsng is/are the basis of the above assertion?

1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda

2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote

3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 3 is correct: The assertion that the Yamuna or Sutlej shifted and the Indus and Ganges river systems were once connected during the Pleistocene period is tied to the Indo-Brahm (or Shiwalik) River hypothesis. Proposed by geologists E.H. Pascoe and G.E. Pilgrim in 1919, this hypothesis argued that a massive single river once flowed westward from Assam to Punjab, eventually draining into the Arabian Sea. To support this geological theory, Pascoe relied heavily on biological evidence—specifically, the presence of the exact same species of blind river dolphin (Platanista gangetica) in both the Indus and Ganges river basins, despite them being entirely separate systems today.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Nadi-Sukta (Hymn of Rivers) is part of the Rigveda, which was composed during the Holocene epoch (roughly 1500 BCE). While it does geographically list the rivers of northwestern India (including the Ganga, Yamuna, Sarasvati, and Sutlej) as they existed during the Vedic period, it cannot serve as a scientific or historical basis for geological events that took place during the much older Pleistocene period (which ended ~11,700 years ago).

Statement 2 is incorrect: Robert Bruce Foote is celebrated as the "Father of Indian Prehistory" for his discovery of the first Paleolithic stone tools at Pallavaram (Tamil Nadu) in 1863. His primary geological and archaeological explorations were focused on South India and Gujarat, not on tracing the Pleistocene paths of the Sutlej and Yamuna rivers.

2. What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

(a) The meditation of the Buddha

(b) The Buddha's First Sermon

(d) The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana

Answer: a

Explanation:

In early Buddhist art (such as the sculptures at Sanchi and Bharhut), the Buddha was not depicted in human form. Instead, artists used specific symbols—known as aniconic representation—to signify his presence and the major events of his life.

The key symbols represent in early Buddhist iconography:

Empty Seat (Vajrasana): Represents the Buddha in deep meditation and his achievement of Enlightenment under the Bodhi tree.
Wheel (Dharmachakra): Represents the First Sermon (Dharmachakrapravartana) delivered at the deer park in Sarnath.
Stupa: Represents the final passing or death of the Buddha (Mahaparinibbana).
Riderless Horse (Kanthaka): Represents the Great Departure (Mahabhinishkramana) when Siddhartha left his royal life behind.
Lotus and Bull/Elephant: Represent the Birth of the Buddha.

3. Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

1. Vitasta : Chenab

2. Asikni : Jhelum

3. Parushni :Ravi

4. Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 3 only (d) 4 only

Answer: c

Explanation:

Pair 1 is incorrect: Vitasta is the ancient Vedic name for the Jhelum river, not the Chenab. (The Battle of the Hydaspes, fought by Alexander and Porus, is also known as the Battle of the Vitasta).

Pair 2 is incorrect: Asikni is the ancient name for the Chenab river, not the Jhelum.

Pair 3 is correct: Parushni is the ancient name for the Ravi river. (This river is famous in the Rigveda as the site of the "Battle of the Ten Kings" or Dasarajna).

Pair 4 is incorrect: The ancient Vedic name for the Beas river is Vipasha (or Vipas). Yavyavati is mentioned in the Rigveda, but it is generally identified with the Zhob river in present-day Balochistan, or as a tributary of the Sarasvati.

4. Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.

2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.

3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Amaravati Stupa (also known as the Mahachaitya) is located on the right bank of the Krishna River in the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh, which forms the lower Krishna valley.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Amaravati Stupa was actually larger than the Great Stupa at Sanchi, not second to it. At its peak, the Amaravati Maha Stupa had a diameter of roughly 50 meters and a height of about 30 meters, making it the largest stupa built in ancient India. Sanchi's Great Stupa, by comparison, has a diameter of about 36.5 meters.

Statement 3 is correct: The Amaravati school of art had a profound and lasting influence. Domestically, it laid the foundation for later South Indian sculptural styles, notably influencing Pallava and Chola art. Internationally, its distinct style (such as the elegant, elongated figures and flowing robes) was exported through maritime trade routes, heavily influencing the Buddhist art of Sri Lanka (e.g., Anuradhapura) and various parts of South-East Asia (including Thailand, Vietnam, and Indonesia).

5. Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ?

1. Senguttuvan : Chera

2. Udiyanjeral : Chola

3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Senguttuvan (often called Cheran Senguttuvan) was a highly celebrated king of the Chera dynasty. He is famous for his northern expedition and is a central figure in the Tamil epic Silappatikaram, written by his brother Ilango Adigal.

Pair 2 is NOT correctly matched: Udiyanjeral (Uthiyan Cheralathan) was a ruler of the Chera dynasty, not the Chola dynasty. He is widely considered the earliest known Chera monarch of the Sangam period.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Nedunjeliyan was a prominent king of the Pandya dynasty. There were a couple of famous kings by this name in the Sangam literature, most notably the victor of the Battle of Talaiyalanganam.

6. Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.

2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.

3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.

4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Subhas Chandra Bose successfully defeated Pattabhi Sitaramayya (Gandhi's chosen candidate) for the Congress presidency in 1939. However, Gandhi declared Sitaramayya's defeat as his own personal defeat. This led to a non-cooperation movement by the right-wing members of the Congress Working Committee (CWC). Bose ultimately resigned because he failed to win Gandhi's confidence to form a functional working committee.

Statement 2 is correct: Bose expected the left-wing elements of the Congress to unite behind his radical agenda against the British. However, the Congress Left was severely fragmented and failed to provide a united front, leaving Bose politically isolated.

Statement 4 is correct: During the crucial Tripuri session, Govind Ballabh Pant moved a resolution demanding that the working committee be formed strictly according to Gandhi's wishes. At this critical juncture, the Congress Socialist Party (CSP)—led by Jayaprakash Narayan—and the supporters of M.N. Roy chose to abstain from voting. They believed that maintaining the unity of the Congress under Gandhi's overarching leadership was more important than supporting Bose and risking a massive split in the national movement.

Statement 3 is incorrect: It is historically inaccurate to say the Communists completely failed to support Bose in his endeavors during this specific crisis. While the CSP abstained, the Communist Party of India (CPI) actually voted against the Pant resolution, standing with Bose. Although they later declined to join his newly formed Forward Bloc to avoid dividing the anti-imperialist struggle, they were much more supportive of him during the presidential election and the initial Tripuri standoff than the other left-wing factions.

7. Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.

2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.

3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The British actively sought to dismantle the military and political power of the taluqdars. Not only were they dispossessed of more than half of their estates, but they were also strictly disarmed and their forts were systematically dismantled. Retaining their private armies and forts was entirely against the British objective of establishing a monopoly on force.

Statement 2 is correct: The British introduced the first Summary Revenue Settlement in 1856. The guiding assumption behind this settlement was that the taluqdars were merely "interlopers" or outsiders who had no permanent property rights and had usurped the land from the original village proprietors through force and fraud.

Statement 3 is correct: Driven by utilitarian ideas and the desire to maximize land revenue, the British believed the most just and profitable system was to remove the taluqdar middlemen entirely. The goal of the 1856 settlement was to bypass them and settle the revenue directly with the actual tillers of the soil or the village communities. (This dispossession deeply alienated the taluqdars, causing them to join the Revolt of 1857 in large numbers).

8. Consider the following assertion:
The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.

2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.

3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Government of India Act 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) not only retained the separate electorates introduced for Muslims in 1909 but significantly extended them to other communities, including Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans. By institutionalizing political representation based strictly on religious and community lines, the reforms directly incentivized politicians to organize and appeal to voters purely on a communal basis.
Statement 2 is correct: The extension of separate electorates was a deliberate imperial strategy of "Divide and Rule." Following the Lucknow Pact of 1916 (where the Muslim League and Congress joined hands) and the growing strength of the unified Indian nationalist movement, the British used communal electorates to pit different communities against one another, effectively breaking the unity of the nationalist struggle.
Statement 3 is correct: Because the reforms tied political representation, government jobs, and administrative influence directly to community identity, various minority and socially deprived groups realized that organizing along communal lines was the most effective way to secure these "favours." Instead of joining a broad national movement, many groups formed community-specific political alliances to negotiate for reserved seats and protections under the new system.

9. Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

(a) Agra Gharana (b) Gwalior Gharana (c) Patiala Gharana (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Answer: d

Explanation:

Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana: While Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur initially received training in the Gwalior Gharana from Neelkanthbua Alurmath, he is most famous as a doyen of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana. He later trained under Ustad Manji Khan and Ustad Burji Khan, who were the sons of Ustad Alladiya Khan—the legendary founder of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana. Mansur became one of the foremost exponents of this style, known for his mastery of rare and complex ragas.

10. In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate?

(a) Rigveda (b) Atharvaveda (c) Ashtadhyayi (d) Arthashastra

Answer: b

Explanation:

Atharvaveda: The term Kshetra-patni (Mistress of the Field) makes its earliest appearance here (specifically in verses like AV 2.12.1). In Vedic agrarian lore, she is invoked as a guardian deity of the agricultural fields, bringing prosperity and protection to the soil.

Rigveda (The common trap): It is easy to confuse this with the Rigveda because the Rigveda heavily features the counterpart deity, Kshetrapati (Lord of the Field), especially in the Kshetrapati Sukta (RV 4.57). However, the specific feminine term Kshetra-patni does not originate in the Rigveda.

Ashtadhyayi & Arthashastra: Panini's Ashtadhyayi is a foundational treatise on Sanskrit grammar, while Kautilya's Arthashastra focuses on statecraft, economy, and military strategy. Neither serves as the origin point for this Vedic agrarian deity.

11. Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

(a) Nat Bhairavi (b) Kamavardhini (c) Hanumatodi (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Answer: d

Explanation:

Dheera Shankarabharanam (or simply Shankarabharanam): In Carnatic music, this is the foundational raga that utilizes all the natural notes (equivalent to the Western major scale).
Bilawal: Similarly, in Hindustani classical music, the Bilawal thaat (and Raga Alhaiya Bilawal) is the fundamental scale that uses only Shuddha (natural) swaras.

Nat Bhairavi is equivalent to the Hindustani Asavari thaat.
Hanumatodi (or Todi) is equivalent to the Hindustani Bhairavi thaat.
Kamavardhini (or Pantuvarali) is closely equivalent to the Hindustani Purvi thaat.

12. The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness

(b) Providing support to Indian importers

(d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Answer: a

Explanation:

The 1s 6d Controversy

The Hilton-Young Commission (Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance) recommended fixing the value of the Rupee at 1 shilling 6 pence (1s 6d) instead of the pre-war rate of 1s 4d, which Indian business leaders and nationalists (like Purshottamdas Thakurdas) strongly advocated for.

By fixing the exchange rate at the higher 1s 6d mark, the British artificially overvalued the Rupee.

Aiding Remittances (Home Charges): The British Indian government had massive annual sterling obligations in London known as "Home Charges" (covering pensions, debt interest, and administrative costs). An overvalued Rupee meant that the government needed to collect fewer Rupees in India to buy the required amount of Sterling. This made balancing the colonial budget significantly easier and protected the government's creditworthiness.
The Nationalist Backlash: Indian leaders fiercely opposed this. While it helped the British balance their books, an overvalued Rupee made Indian exports (like textiles and agriculture) artificially expensive on the global market, devastating domestic industries. Conversely, it made British manufactured imports artificially cheaper, undercutting Indian businesses.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Option (b) is incorrect: While an overvalued rupee technically made imports cheaper, the British Government's primary macroeconomic policy objective was not to support "Indian importers" out of goodwill, but to safeguard their own remittance pipeline and support British exporters.
Option (c) is incorrect: An overvalued exchange rate has the exact opposite effect—it discourages exports by making domestic goods more expensive for foreign buyers.
Option (d) is incorrect: The Hilton-Young Commission did recommend moving toward a gold bullion standard, but the specific choice to fix the rate artificially high was driven by the fiscal need to manage the massive flow of sterling remittances, rather than simply stabilizing against gold.

13. Consider the following statements:
I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, hamsa, and kakanika.

II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Emergence of urban life

2. Transition to money economy

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation:

The period during which Pali texts were composed (the era of the Buddha and the Mahajanapadas, roughly 6th to 4th century BCE) is a massive turning point in ancient Indian history.

2. Transition to a Money Economy (Correct): Before this period, the Vedic economy relied heavily on the barter system, using cattle, grain, or unstandardized metal pieces (nishka or satamana) as units of value. The introduction of specifically weighted, metallic punch-marked coins (primarily silver and copper karshapanas or kahapanas) marked the definitive shift from a barter economy to a formalized money economy. Pali texts mention these coins being used to buy goods, pay wages, and even assess fines.
1. Emergence of Urban Life (Correct): This transition to a money economy directly facilitated the "Second Urbanization" of India (the first being the Indus Valley Civilization). Coinage made long-distance trade much easier and more profitable. A booming trade network led to the rise of merchant guilds (shrenis) and the rapid growth of large, prosperous urban centers and capital cities across the Gangetic plains, such as Rajagriha, Vaishali, Kashi, and Shravasti.

Therefore, the literary and archaeological evidence of these early coins goes hand-in-hand with both the birth of a formalized currency system and the subsequent rise of early Indian cities.

14. Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami

2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole

3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh

4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 3 and 4

Answer: b

Explanation:

1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami (Incorrect): Built during the early Chalukya period, this temple features a distinct Dravidian-style vimana. Its superstructure is tiered and topped with an octagonal dome, which is characteristic of early southern architecture.

2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole (Correct): Aihole was an experimental ground for Chalukyan architects where they blended northern and southern styles. The Huchimalligudi temple is a prominent example that features a Nagara-style (northern, curvilinear or rekha-nagara) shikhara.

3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh (Correct): Built during the Gupta period (around 500 CE), this is one of the earliest known stone temples in India to feature a Nagara-style shikhara. Although the tower is partially ruined today, it originally had a distinct curvilinear shape. It also follows the classic Panchayatana (five-shrine) layout typical of northern temples.

4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal (Incorrect): This is a quintessential example of Dravidian architecture. Built by Queen Lokamahadevi in the 8th century to commemorate her husband's victory over the Pallavas, it features a pronounced stepped, pyramidal vimana.

15. Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

(a) Deva (gods)

(b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

(d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Answer: b

Explanation:

In Jainism, the cycle of birth and death (samsara) involves the soul transmigrating through four main destinies or realms of existence, known as the four Gatis. The specific gati a soul is born into is determined by its accumulated karma.

The four Gatis are:

Deva Gati: Heavenly beings or gods.
Manushya Gati: Human beings (considered the only realm from which ultimate liberation or moksha can be achieved).
Tiryancha Gati: Sub-human beings, which includes animals, birds, plants, and microorganisms.
Nāraki Gati: Hellish beings or denizens of hell (this is the fourth form, replacing the incorrect option).

Why Yaksha is not included: Yakshas and Yakshinis are recognized in Jainism as guardian deities (often associated with Tirthankaras). However, cosmological classifications place them as a specific sub-category within the Deva Gati (specifically under the Vyantara class of celestial beings). They do not constitute one of the four primary, distinct forms of existence.

16. The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

(a) A joyous folk dance

(b) Buddha in a meditative pose

(d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Answer: a

Explanation:

The Hallisalasya (or Hallisaka) painting is one of the most famous murals found in Cave 4 (known as the Rang Mahal or Palace of Colors) of the Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh. It depicts a lively, rhythmic group dance performed by women, accompanied by female musicians playing instruments like drums and cymbals.

Secular Nature: While the Bagh Caves are primarily Buddhist rock-cut monuments (similar to Ajanta), their mural paintings are renowned for being remarkably secular, joyous, and reflective of contemporary life. Instead of focusing solely on religious themes or Jataka tales, they capture the vibrant social life, costumes, and performing arts of the Gupta period.

Why the other options are incorrect: The Bagh Caves do contain depictions of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas, but the term Hallisalasya specifically refers to this ancient circular folk dance (similar to the modern Garba or Rasa). Options (c) and (d) are Hindu mythological themes which are not the subject of these Buddhist cave murals.

17. Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:

1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595-596).

2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.

3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Mankani plates of Taralasvamin (found in Gujarat) are dated to the Kalachuri era 346, which corresponds to 595-596 CE. The date "346" is written using the decimal place-value system, making it the earliest known epigraphic (inscriptional) evidence of this system being used in India.

Statement 2 is correct: Although the place-value system (including zero) was invented earlier and used in mathematical texts (like those of Aryabhata in the 5th century), its use in public and official records was slow to catch on. For centuries, kings continued to use the older Brahmi numeral system (which had distinct, individual symbols for 10, 20, 30, 100, 1000, etc., rather than using place value). It was only by the 9th century that the decimal place-value system completely replaced the old system and became general practice in inscriptions across all of India.

Statement 3 is correct: Through maritime trade and cultural exchange, Indian mathematical concepts spread rapidly to "Greater India." The earliest material evidence of the decimal place-value system (and specifically the use of a dot or circle for zero) outside of India is actually found in 7th-century Sanskrit and vernacular inscriptions in Southeast Asia. Notable examples include the Sambor Prei Kuk inscription in Cambodia (dated 683 CE) and the Srivijayan inscriptions at Kedukan Bukit and Kota Kapur in Indonesia (dated 683–686 CE).

18. Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:

I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.

II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.

III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.

2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.

3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Explanation:

Inference 1 is correct: The widespread presence of spindle-whorls (made of terracotta or faience) in individual dwellings indicates that spinning cotton and wool was a common, household-level activity. Because the spinning wheel (charkha) was not introduced to India until the medieval period, Harappans had to spin thread manually using these simple drop spindles. This was a highly time-consuming and laborious process.
Inference 2 is correct: The discovery of meticulously standardised cubical weights (made of chert) following a binary and decimal system, along with linear measurement scales (like the graduated ivory scale found at Lothal and the shell scale at Mohenjo-Daro), highlights a highly advanced grasp of mathematics, geometry, and metrology. These points are related to their sophisticated scientific knowledge.
Inference 3 is incorrect: Statement III describes houses with their own (private) wells, their own bathing platforms, and distinct layouts with spacious courtyards. This architectural setup strongly points to the existence of private property, individual family units, and social stratification (wealth inequalities), rather than a "common property" or communal living system. While Harappans did have public/common structures (like the Great Bath or granaries), the residential housing described in the statement contradicts the idea of a common property system.

19. Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

(a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.

(b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.

(c) a The Bardoli Satyagraha was campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was protest against excessive extraction of rents.

(d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement (c) is correct:

The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) in Gujarat was a direct revolt by landowning peasants against the Bombay Presidency government's arbitrary decision to hike the land revenue tax by 22% despite a drop in cotton prices.
The Eka (Unity) Movement (1921-1922) in the Awadh region of UP was a struggle by tenant farmers against the zamindars (landlords) and taluqdars. Their primary grievance was the illegal and excessive extraction of rents—often demanded at rates 50% higher than the legally recorded rent—along with brutal eviction practices.

Why Statement (a) is incorrect: The Congress and Khilafat leaders initially supported the Eka Movement, but when its grassroots leadership (under Madari Pasi) turned increasingly radical and violent, the Congress completely distanced itself from it. Conversely, the Bardoli Satyagraha was spearheaded from the very beginning by top Congress leadership, specifically Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Why Statement (b) is incorrect: The Eka Movement was not led by the taluqdars; it was an uprising against them by the peasantry. Furthermore, while the Bardoli Satyagraha did seek the support of landless laborers (the Kaliparaj), it was fundamentally a movement led by the landowning peasant class (the Patidars).

Why Statement (d) is incorrect: The Eka Movement was concentrated in the northern Awadh districts (Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur), not Varanasi or Mirzapur. The Bardoli Satyagraha took place in the Surat district of South Gujarat, not the Saurashtra peninsula.

20. Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:

I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.

II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.

2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/ kulisha (axe) and datra /sreni (sickle).

3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Supports I & II): The Rigveda contains references to ashma chakra (a stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails/buckets). This technology provides direct evidence of the mechanical means used to draw water from wells, which supports both the expansion of agriculture away from flood plains (Statement I) and the necessity of a lifting mechanism (Statement II).

Statement 2 (Does not support): The mention of tools like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle) in the Rigveda provides evidence of agricultural activity (clearing land and harvesting crops), but these implements are not related to the specific technology of well irrigation or the use of draught animals for water-lifting.

Statement 3 (Supports II): There is an established history of using oxen for ploughing and pulling carts that predates the Rigvedic period. This historical continuity supports the assertion that draught-animal power was the primary force utilized to operate the pulley systems (the ashma chakra mentioned in Statement 1) for drawing water out of wells.

21. Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

(a) Ecuador

(b) Peru

(d) Colombia

Answer: a

Explanation:

The Tungurahua Volcano (often translated from Quechua as "Throat of Fire") is an active stratovolcano located in the Cordillera Oriental of the Andes mountain range in central Ecuador. It is one of South America's most active volcanoes and is located within the Sangay National Park (which is itself a UNESCO World Heritage site). Efforts to designate the specific Tungurahua Volcano area as a UNESCO Global Geopark highlight its unique geological, cultural, and ecological significance.

22. With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.

2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.

3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: In March 2025, the Central Government officially designated Madhav National Park as India's 58th Tiger Reserve. This was part of a larger, multi-year conservation effort to reintroduce and stabilize the tiger population in the region by relocating tigers from other reserves like Bandhavgarh and Panna.
Statement 2 is correct: Sakhya Sagar is a large, human-made reservoir situated entirely within the boundaries of Madhav National Park (created in the early 20th century by the erstwhile royal family of Gwalior). It was officially recognized as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2022 due to its rich biodiversity and its role as a vital wintering ground for migratory waterfowl.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Madhav National Park is located entirely within the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh. While it is relatively close to the state border, its geographical area is not shared with Rajasthan.

23. With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.

2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.

3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are located close to the equator and are entirely surrounded by the ocean. This gives them a classic humid, tropical coastal climate (often categorized as a tropical rainforest/monsoon climate), characterized by high humidity and relatively uniform temperatures throughout the year (typically ranging between 23°C and 30°C).

Statement 2 is correct: Due to their strategic geographic location in the Bay of Bengal, the islands receive abundant rainfall from both the advancing South-west monsoon (which hits the islands before it reaches the Indian mainland) and the retreating North-east monsoon.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The maximum precipitation does not happen between December and May. The islands receive the bulk of their heavy rainfall during the South-west monsoon season, which spans from May to October. The period between January and April constitutes the relatively drier, warmer season for the islands.

24. Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity

2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills

3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The western coast of the Indian Peninsula is a classic example of a submerged coastal plain. Tectonic activity and faulting during the Mesozoic and early Cenozoic eras caused the western flank of the peninsula to subside or submerge beneath the Arabian Sea. This submergence is what provides the deep, natural indentations ideal for ports like Mumbai, Marmagao, and Kochi.

Statement 2 is correct: The Peninsular Block is one of the oldest and most stable landmasses on Earth. The mountain ranges found here—including the Aravallis, Nallamala, Veliconda, Javadi, and Mahendragiri hills—are highly denuded, residual (relict) mountains. They are the eroded remnants of ancient fold mountains that have been worn down by millions of years of weathering.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Deep, V-shaped valleys and gorges carved by fast-flowing, youthful rivers are characteristic of the Himalayan drainage system. In contrast, the rivers of the Peninsular plateau (such as the Godavari, Krishna, and Mahanadi) are much older and have reached their mature or senile stage. They flow through broad, shallow, graded valleys with low gradients, not steep V-shaped valleys. (The Narmada and Tapi are exceptions as they flow through fault-induced rift valleys, but they still do not form the classic youthful V-shaped valleys of the Himalayas).

25. Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:

I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.

II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.

III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?

1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.

2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.

3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Relationship 1 is correct: Statement I outlines the foundational goal of the Sagarmala Programme (port-led economic growth via infrastructure). Statement II presents the measurable outcomes of that initiative (growth in shipping and better global rankings). Therefore, the achievements listed in Statement II serve as direct evidence validating the strategies proposed in Statement I.

Relationship 2 is correct: Policy frameworks typically evolve in phases. Statement I describes the foundational phase focused on physical infrastructure and cost reduction. Statement III describes the next evolutionary phase (Sagarmala 2.0), which builds upon that foundation and extends it by integrating modern goals like becoming an "innovation hub" and aligning with long-term national visions (Viksit Bharat 2047).

Relationship 3 is incorrect: Statement I does not contradict Statement III. Focusing on foundational infrastructure (Statement I) is a prerequisite for, rather than a contradiction to, building an innovation hub (Statement III). They represent complementary, sequential phases of the same overarching maritime strategy, not opposing viewpoints.

26. Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :

1. It is an epiphytic orchid.

2. The species is endemic to North-east India.

3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Rhynchostylis retusa is an epiphytic orchid. This means it grows on the surface of other plants (typically tree trunks) for physical support, drawing its moisture and nutrients from the air, rain, and accumulated debris, rather than acting as a parasite that feeds off the host plant.

Statement 2 is incorrect: "Endemic" means a species is exclusively found in one specific geographic region. While the Foxtail orchid is highly culturally significant and abundant in Northeast India, its natural distribution is much broader. It is found across the Indian subcontinent, Sri Lanka, Nepal, and throughout tropical Southeast Asia (including Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia).

Statement 3 is correct: The Foxtail orchid is the officially recognized state flower of both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. In Assam, it is locally known as Kopou Phool and holds immense cultural significance, especially as a traditional hair ornament worn by women during the Rongali Bihu dance.

27. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

1. They acted as army fortresses.

2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.

3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.

4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 4

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 3 is correct: The Moidams (or Maidams) are the vaulted mound-burial structures of the Tai-Ahom dynasty, which ruled Assam for around 600 years. Often compared to the pyramids of Egypt or the royal tombs of ancient China, they served exclusively as the burial grounds for Ahom royalty and nobility.

Why the other statements are incorrect: Moidams were strictly funerary monuments or necropolises. They were never designed or used as military fortresses (Statement 1), recreation centres (Statement 2), or battle drill centres (Statement 4).

28. At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”.
Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct ?

(a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean

(b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

(d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Answer: b

Explanation:

The Core FAO Framework: The "Four Betters" represent the guiding principle behind the Food and Agriculture Organization's (FAO) overarching Strategic Framework for the decade 2022–2031. They are designed to support the UN's 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.

Blue Transformation Connection: The FAO's "Blue Transformation" roadmap applies these exact same "Four Betters" specifically to aquatic food systems. The goal is to maximize the potential of oceans, rivers, and lakes to feed the world's growing population sustainably.

Better Production: Innovating and expanding sustainable aquaculture and improving the management of wild capture fisheries.
Better Nutrition: Ensuring aquatic foods (which are rich in high-quality protein and micronutrients) are integrated into global food security and nutritional strategies.
Better Environment: Reducing the environmental footprint of fishing and aquaculture, protecting marine biodiversity, and rehabilitating aquatic ecosystems.
Better Life: Securing equitable livelihoods, promoting gender equality, and ensuring inclusive economic growth for coastal and inland fishing communities.

29. Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.

2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.

3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Lake Turkana holds the record as the world's largest permanent desert lake, as well as the world's largest alkaline lake.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The lake is located in the Great Rift Valley, primarily in northern Kenya, with its far northern tip crossing into Ethiopia. It is not located in South Sudan, nor is it on the fringe of the Sahara (it sits well south of the Sahara, in the arid environs of East Africa).

Statement 3 is correct: The Lake Turkana National Parks were designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to their outstanding biodiversity and rich deposits of hominid fossils (which have been crucial to understanding human evolution). It is popularly called the "Jade Sea" because of its breathtaking, vibrant blue-green color, which is created by the presence of specific algae that thrive in its alkaline waters.

30. Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

(a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project

(b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas

(d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Answer: c

Explanation:

The Project is located in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, the Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project is India's first community-based REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) initiative.
Plan Vivo Certification: It was the first project in India to be certified under the internationally recognized Plan Vivo Standard. This specific standard is designed to ensure that carbon forestry projects are entirely community-led and that the financial benefits from selling carbon credits go directly to the local indigenous communities who own and protect the land.
Conservation Focus: The project is managed by a federation of indigenous Khasi communities (known as Ka Synjuk Ki Hima Arliang Wah Umiam). It focuses on halting the degradation of community forests, restoring the Umiam river watershed, preventing forest fires, and protecting the region's ancient "sacred groves."

31. Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change:

I. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.

II. India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.

III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.

2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.

3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS), submitted to the UNFCCC, is indeed the foundational framework for India's transition to a low-carbon economy, with the ultimate objective of achieving Net-Zero emissions by 2070.

Statement II is correct: As per India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December 2024, the country's greenhouse gas emissions recorded a decrease of approximately 7.93% in 2020 compared to 2019, largely attributed to shifts in energy consumption and economic activity during that period.

Statement III is incorrect: Climate-resilient development does not necessarily depend on "quick and short-term" emission reduction targets. Instead, India’s policy approach emphasizes long-term, sustainable, and inclusive growth that balances development needs with climate action. It prioritizes systemic transitions (like the National Hydrogen Mission, electrification, and forest sequestration) over potentially disruptive, rapid, short-term shocks that could hinder human development and economic stability.

32. With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.

2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.

3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Western Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) is indeed listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. They are endemic to Northeast India (specifically in areas south of the Brahmaputra and east of the Dibang rivers). The Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam is specifically dedicated to the conservation of this species.

Statement 2 is correct: Gibbons are the masters of brachiation—a specialized mode of locomotion where they swing from branch to branch using their long, powerful arms. This allows them to travel through the forest canopy with incredible speed and grace.

Statement 3 is incorrect: This statement describes an incorrect physical profile. Gibbons are small, slender, and lightweight apes (the smallest of the "lesser apes"). They do not possess a "strong and heavy build like gorillas"; rather, their lightweight frames are an evolutionary adaptation specifically for their arboreal (tree-dwelling) lifestyle, allowing them to swing effortlessly through thin branches that would not support a heavy animal like a gorilla.

33. Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.

2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.

3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 3 is correct: This accurately reflects the "climate resilience" rationale. Mangroves are widely recognized for their role as natural bio-shields; their dense, complex root systems (prop roots and pneumatophores) break the force of storm surges and dissipate tidal energy, protecting inland areas from erosion and flooding. Simultaneously, they support massive biodiversity that provides essential biomass resources (such as fish, crabs, and timber), which serve as the foundation for the livelihoods of millions of people living in coastal regions.
Why the other statements are incorrect:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Mangroves do not function by "storing freshwater" to enable paddy cultivation; they are, by definition, halophytic (salt-tolerant) ecosystems that occupy intertidal zones. Promoting paddy cultivation by removing mangroves is generally considered ecologically damaging, as it eliminates the very storm-protection barrier the ecosystem provides.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Mangroves are not "salt-sensitive"—they are, in fact, highly salt-tolerant. They do not "filter seawater" for the purpose of creating freshwater aquaculture; instead, the conversion of mangrove land into aquaculture ponds (a practice common in some parts of Asia) is one of the primary drivers of global mangrove loss, which ironically reduces climate resilience.

34. In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy?

1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.

2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.

3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 3 is correct: This is the core rationale for the project. Historically, a significant portion of India's container traffic has been trans-shipped through foreign ports like Colombo, Singapore, or Dubai because Indian ports lacked the required deep-water draft for "megamax" container vessels.

Natural Deep Draft: With its natural depth of over 18 meters, Vizhinjam can accommodate the largest container ships in the world.
Economic Impact: By enabling direct calls for these massive vessels, India can bypass foreign trans-shipment hubs. This significantly reduces logistics costs, enhances national revenue retention (by capturing port charges that were previously leaking abroad), and positions Vizhinjam as a primary gateway for international trade in the Indian Ocean Region.

Why the other statements are incorrect:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The objective of Vizhinjam is the exact opposite of reducing reliance on foreign collaboration. It is a massive project developed through a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model with international involvement (notably the Adani Group in collaboration with global partners). Furthermore, its purpose is to boost international cargo handling, not to limit itself to domestic cargo or eliminate external cooperation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While ports can support cruise tourism, Vizhinjam is a strategic deep-water trans-shipment hub designed specifically for massive container vessels. Its primary economic function is industrial and commercial container logistics, not passenger cruise tourism or maritime heritage.

35. Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

1. It has an antecedent drainage system.

2. It flows through three countries.

3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.

4. It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following:

(a) Brahmaputra

(b) Indus

(d) Teesta

Answer: c

Explanation:

Antecedent Drainage: Like the Indus and Brahmaputra, the Sutlej is a classic antecedent river. It existed before the uplift of the Himalayas and has cut deep gorges through the mountain ranges, maintaining its course as the mountains rose.
Flows through three countries: The Sutlej originates in China (Tibet), flows through India (Himachal Pradesh and Punjab), and enters Pakistan to join the Indus river system.
Origin and Irrigation: It originates near the Mansarovar/Rakas Lake in the Tibetan Plateau. It is the lifeblood of the irrigation network in the Punjab region, most notably serving the Bhakra Nangal Project, which is one of the largest multipurpose irrigation and power projects in India.
Absence of Distributaries: Unlike the Brahmaputra (which forms an extensive delta with massive distributaries) or the Indus (which has a complex system of distributaries in its delta before reaching the sea), the Sutlej merges into the Chenab to become the Panjnad, which then joins the Indus. Within the plains it traverses, it is characterized more by a singular, confined channel rather than the formation of traditional distributaries seen in deltaic regions.

Why the others do not fit:

(a) Brahmaputra: While it is an antecedent river and flows through three countries (China, India, Bangladesh), it forms one of the largest and most complex systems of distributaries in the world as it moves through its delta in Bangladesh.
(b) Indus: While it is antecedent and flows through three countries (China, India, Pakistan), it forms a massive delta with multiple distributaries before emptying into the Arabian Sea.
(d) Teesta: It flows through only two countries (India and Bangladesh) and does not have the same scale of trans-boundary irrigation significance across three nations as the Sutlej.

36. Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.

2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.

3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of Indian states and union territories (a total of 9: Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Delhi (UT), Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar).

Statement 2 is not correct: Rajasthan does not share the longest international border. West Bengal holds that distinction, as it shares a massive, winding border with Bangladesh (approximately 2,217 km). While Rajasthan shares a significant border with Pakistan, it is not the longest among all Indian states.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Sikkim is not the only state that shares its boundary with just one other Indian state. Sikkim shares its border only with West Bengal. However, Meghalaya also shares its boundary with only one Indian state, which is Assam. Since there are two such states, the claim that Sikkim is the "only" one is false.

37. Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

1.It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.

2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.

3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The story of the Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake is a globally recognized success story in community-led conservation. Previously, these birds were hunted in the thousands by locals during their stopover. Following intense awareness campaigns and sustained efforts by local communities and the state forest department, the area was declared a protected zone, and hunting was completely replaced by community-based protection and ecotourism. This directly led to the continued and safe arrival of the falcons.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Advanced tracking technologies (such as satellite tagging) are indeed used by scientists to study and monitor the migratory paths of the Amur Falcons, but these technologies do not guide the birds. Migratory birds navigate using a combination of innate instincts, celestial navigation, and the Earth's magnetic field; the technology is a tool for human observation, not a guidance system for the birds.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Amur Falcons have not adapted to permanent residency in India. They are strictly migratory birds that breed in Southeastern Siberia and Northern China (including Mongolia) and migrate thousands of miles to winter in Southern Africa. Nagaland is a critical stopover/refueling site during their long-distance migration, not their permanent habitat.

38. Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas

2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions

3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative explicitly seeks to move away from monoculture, which is often risky and ecologically fragile in rainfed regions. Instead, it promotes Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)—such as combining crops with livestock, horticulture, agro-forestry, and apiculture—to ensure diversified income and ecological stability.

Statement 2 is incorrect: RAD is designed specifically for rainfed areas, not irrigated regions. Its focus is on improving water-use efficiency, moisture conservation, and agricultural resilience in areas that depend primarily on rainfall. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions is generally managed under other specific agricultural schemes, as rice is a highly water-intensive crop that is often unsuitable for the water-stressed conditions of rainfed zones.

Statement 3 is correct: This is the core objective of the RAD initiative. By adopting Integrated Farming Systems (IFS), farmers can diversify their sources of income and improve the overall productivity of their land. This diversification acts as a buffer against total crop failure caused by erratic rainfall or climate-induced stress, thereby minimizing climatic risks.

39. Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.

2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Oeko-Tex certification (specifically STANDARD 100 by OEKO-TEX) is a globally recognized label that confirms a product has been tested for harmful substances. By achieving this, Indian Eri Silk exporters can effectively penetrate high-end international markets, particularly in Europe and North America, where consumers and luxury brands place a premium on transparency and the absence of hazardous chemicals.

Statement 2 is correct: The certification provides a third-party, scientific validation that the silk meets rigorous international safety and quality benchmarks. Since Eri Silk is naturally "ahimsa" (peace) silk and often produced in small-scale, traditional setups, Oeko-Tex certification bridges the gap between its artisanal roots and the strict regulatory requirements of modern, eco-conscious global supply chains.

40. Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

1. Bahrain

2. Syria

3. Qatar

4. Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: b

Explanation:

The Strait of Hormuz is the narrow waterway located between the Persian Gulf (to the west) and the Gulf of Oman/Arabian Sea (to the east). To "reach out" to the Indian Ocean from the Persian Gulf, a ship must pass through this strait.
Bahrain (1): Located within the Persian Gulf. Any vessel sailing from Bahrain to the open Indian Ocean must pass through the Strait of Hormuz.
Qatar (3): Also located within the Persian Gulf. Similarly, vessels departing Qatar for the Indian Ocean must traverse the Strait of Hormuz.
Syria (2): Located on the eastern Mediterranean Sea. Ships from Syria access the world's oceans via the Mediterranean and then typically through the Suez Canal into the Red Sea, not the Persian Gulf.
Egypt (4): Located in North Africa with coasts on both the Mediterranean and the Red Sea. Its major maritime access to the Indian Ocean is via the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden, bypassing the Persian Gulf and the Strait of Hormuz entirely.

41. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (INTERPOL Notice)	List II (Description)
A. Silver Notice	1. To seek information on unidentified bodies
B. Blue Notice	2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
C. Black Notice	3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety
D. Green Notice	4. To identify and trace criminal assets

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 1 2 3

Answer: c

Explanation:

A. Silver Notice — 4. To identify and trace criminal assets: INTERPOL Silver Notices are specifically used to identify, trace, freeze, and seize assets that are linked to criminal activities.

B. Blue Notice — 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation: Blue Notices are issued to locate, identify, or obtain information on a person of interest in a criminal investigation.

C. Black Notice — 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies: Black Notices are used to seek information on unidentified bodies or to assist in identifying them.

D. Green Notice — 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety: Green Notices are used to provide warnings and intelligence about persons who have committed criminal offenses and are likely to repeat these crimes in other countries, posing a threat to public safety.

42. Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.

2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.

3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The "Ecosystem Survey and Analysis" vertical under the NIRANTAR platform focuses on floral and faunal research and inventorying. The Botanical Survey of India (BSI), headquartered in Kolkata, is indeed the designated lead institute for this vertical due to its core mandate of surveying and documenting the plant resources of India.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While "Research and Management of Ecosystem Service" is a recognized vertical under NIRANTAR, the Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is not the lead institute for this vertical. The lead institute for the "Research and Management of Ecosystem Service" vertical is the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun. The CZA is one of the constituent organizations that falls under this vertical, rather than leading it.

Statement 3 is correct: The "Capacity Development Support" vertical is tasked with fostering human resource development, training, and institutional strengthening within the Ministry. The Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal, serves as the lead institute for this vertical, given its specialized role in training and research related to forest and natural resource management.

43. The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg

2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation

3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific

4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 1 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While an MoU in the field of Traditional Medicine was indeed signed, it was between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and Charité University, Germany, not the University of Hamburg.

Statement 2 is correct: A Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development was officially signed between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation (Deutscher Hockey-Bund e.V.).

Statement 3 is correct: The establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific was one of the key strategic outcomes announced during the visit to support a rules-based regional order.

Statement 4 is incorrect: There was no announcement or official outcome regarding the opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow during this visit.

44. Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.

2. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: DHRUV64 is the third microprocessor fabricated under the Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) Programme, following the THEJAS32 and THEJAS64 chips. The DIR-V programme, launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), aims to foster the development of a complete portfolio of indigenous, open-source RISC-V-based microprocessors to achieve technological sovereignty in the semiconductor sector.

Statement 2 is correct: DHRUV64 is indeed India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. Developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), it is designed for a variety of applications, including industrial automation, automotive systems, 5G infrastructure, and IoT, serving as a reliable and cost-effective alternative to imported processors.

45. The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?

1. The new standard is known as IS 19445: 2025.

2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.

3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) officially notified IS 19445:2025 in December 2025. It is India's first dedicated national standard for bomb disposal systems, specifically titled "Bomb Disposal Systems — Performance Evaluation and Requirements."

Statement 2 is correct: A primary objective of this standardization is to ensure uniformity in how equipment (such as EOD robots and disposal suits) is tested and evaluated. By establishing a common benchmark, it significantly improves interoperability and reliability across various security and law enforcement agencies using this equipment.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL), a laboratory under the DRDO based in Chandigarh, was indeed the key technical body that developed the standard, there is no evidence that it was developed in collaboration with the "30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia." The development was a domestic effort initiated at the request of the Ministry of Home Affairs to bolster India's indigenous internal security and safety infrastructure.

46. 'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X' :

(a) Michel H. Devoret

(b) Richard Robson

(d) Joel Mokyr

Answer: c

Explanation:

John Clarke was awarded the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics (jointly with Michel H. Devoret and John M. Martinis) "for the discovery of macroscopic quantum mechanical tunnelling and energy quantisation in an electric circuit."

John Clarke was born in 1942 in Cambridge, United Kingdom. He joined the physics faculty at the University of California, Berkeley in 1969 and is an emeritus professor there.

While other names listed were also 2025 Nobel laureates—Richard Robson (Chemistry) and Joel Mokyr (Economic Sciences)—they do not fit the specific description of being born in the UK while serving as a professor at an American university in the same manner as Clarke.

47. Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.

2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.

3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Grand Slam Tennis, as a body, is a partnership between the four Grand Slam tournaments (Australian Open, Roland Garros, Wimbledon, and the US Open). This shared governance structure allows them to align on strategic visions, represent the sport's history, and manage the tournaments' collective interests.

Statement 2 is correct: Grand Slam tournaments are "open for entry" to all internationally ranked players regardless of other criteria. Qualification is primarily determined by world rankings (ATP/WTA), and players must meet specific entry requirements or successfully pass through qualifying tournaments. Furthermore, the age eligibility is not a simple "above 14" rule; the professional tours and Grand Slams have specific age-eligibility rules governed by the ITF (International Tennis Federation) and the respective tours, which restrict participation for very young players.

Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no specific, universal limitation on the number of "Wild Cards" a player may receive over their career. Wild cards are awarded at the discretion of the individual tournament organizers (often based on merit, local talent development, or promotional considerations), and there is no global cap preventing a player from receiving multiple wild cards across different tournaments or years.

48. Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?

(a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat

(b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam

(d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Answer: c

Explanation:

The pairing of the HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture (India Chip Ltd.) with Madhya Pradesh is incorrect. The facility is located in Jewar, Uttar Pradesh, strategically positioned near the Noida International Airport.

Here is the correct matching for the other plants:

(a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. (in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics): This facility is located in Sanand, Gujarat.
(b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. (TSAT): This facility is located in Jagiroad, Assam.
(d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd.: This facility is located in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.

49. Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct?

1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.

2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Bharat Forecast System (BharatFS) operates at a horizontal resolution of 6 km. This high-resolution grid is specifically designed to enable weather forecasting at the level of a cluster of panchayats/villages, significantly improving the accuracy of short- and medium-range weather predictions (such as rainfall and storms) at the local level.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bharat Forecast System was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, not IIT Delhi. It is powered by the "Arka" supercomputer, which is also located at IITM, Pune.

50. Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong' :

1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category.

2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.

3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Boong, a Manipuri-language film, won the BAFTA Award in the Children's and Family Film category at the 79th BAFTA Awards held in February 2026.
Statement 2 is correct: The film was written and directed by Lakshmipriya Devi, marking her directorial debut.
Statement 3 is correct: Boong made history by becoming the first Indian film ever to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category.

51. Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.

2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.

3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains, allowing selective data access.

4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Blockchain acts as a distributed, immutable ledger. Stakeholders with the appropriate permissions can view the transaction history, and because each block is cryptographically linked to the previous one, the records are protected from unauthorized alteration.

Statement 2 is correct: A core feature of blockchain is its decentralized nature. The ledger is replicated across multiple nodes (computers) in the network. Any new transaction is validated by the consensus mechanism and synced across these nodes rapidly, ensuring consistency.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While a Consortium blockchain is often described as "permissioned" and restricts access to specific groups (a blend of public and private characteristics), defining it solely as a "blend of public and private blockchains" is technically imprecise. Public blockchains are permissionless (anyone can join), and private blockchains are fully restricted. A Consortium blockchain is a permissioned network governed by a group of entities, but it is fundamentally different from a hybrid of public and private chains.

Statement 4 is correct: Blockchain utilizes cryptographic hashing and consensus protocols. Once a block is verified and added to the chain, changing even a single piece of data would change the hash, breaking the chain. Therefore, it is practically and mathematically impossible to alter or delete recorded data without being detected by the rest of the network.

52. An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:

(a) Dropshipping Model

(b) Affiliate Revenue Model

(d) Agency Revenue Model

Answer: a

Explanation:

Dropshipping Model: This is a retail fulfillment method where a store does not keep the products it sells in stock. Instead, when a store sells a product using the dropshipping model, it purchases the item from a third party (a wholesaler or manufacturer) and has it shipped directly to the customer. As a result, the seller never sees or handles the product, but maintains control over the pricing and marketing strategy.

Why the others are incorrect:

(b) Affiliate Revenue Model: In this model, an affiliate earns a commission for marketing another person's or company's products. The affiliate simply promotes the product and does not have control over pricing or the fulfillment process.
(c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model: This model involves a company receiving a fee for enabling or executing a transaction (e.g., credit card processors or marketplaces like eBay charging a commission for facilitating a sale between a buyer and seller).
(d) Agency Revenue Model: This typically refers to a business providing professional services or acting as an intermediary (agent) where they earn a fee or commission for facilitating deals, rather than acting as the primary retailer of goods.

53. Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

(a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage

(b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy

(d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Answer: c

Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constructs the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) to capture the extent of financial inclusion across the country. It is a comprehensive index incorporating details of banking, investments, insurance, postal, and pension sector services. The index is built on three broad parameters:

Access (35% weight): Measures the reach of financial services, including banking infrastructure (number of branches, ATMs, business correspondents) and the number of bank accounts.
Usage (45% weight): Measures how effectively these services are being used, looking at parameters such as the amount of deposits and credit, and the number of digital transactions.
Quality (20% weight): Measures the standard of financial inclusion, incorporating aspects like financial literacy, consumer protection, and the grievance redressal mechanism.

54. Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?

(a) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions

(b) To replace private e-commerce players

(d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Answer: c

Explanation:

To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks.

Key Characteristics of ONDC:

Interoperability: Unlike traditional e-commerce models where a buyer must be on the same platform as the seller (e.g., Amazon or Flipkart), ONDC uses an open protocol (based on the Beckn protocol). This allows a buyer on one app to purchase goods from a seller on a completely different app, creating a neutral, democratized marketplace.
Unbundling: ONDC unbundles the value chain of e-commerce into separate components—like buyer-side apps, seller-side apps, and logistics providers. This prevents any single platform from controlling the entire customer experience and data, thereby fostering competition among smaller players.
Not a Platform: It is important to note that ONDC is not an e-commerce platform itself, but rather a set of open specifications and standards designed to connect disparate platforms.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(a): ONDC is designed to be a decentralized network. Its architecture is built to ensure a level playing field, not to centralize government control over commercial transactions.
(b): ONDC aims to include and integrate existing private e-commerce players into a single, open network rather than replacing them. It creates a larger ecosystem where they can coexist and compete more fairly.
(d): While ONDC integrates seamlessly with UPI for payments, it does not mandate UPI exclusively. It is designed to be payment-agnostic, supporting various digital payment methods available within the network's interoperable framework.

**55. Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?**

(a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.

(b) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.

(c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.

(d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement (d) is not correct because the liability frameworks for UPI and the Digital Rupee (e-Rupee) are fundamentally different:

UPI: Transactions operate on the existing banking system. The money transferred is a liability of the commercial bank (the bank holds your deposit and promises to pay).
Digital Rupee: The e-Rupee is a digital form of currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It is a direct liability of the Central Bank (RBI), not the commercial bank. In this case, the commercial bank acts only as an intermediary or distributor for the wallet.

Why the other statements are correct:

(a) Correct: UPI is a payment system that transfers funds between bank accounts in real-time. The Digital Rupee is a digital version of fiat currency (a token), functioning like physical cash in digital form.
(b) Correct: With UPI, the underlying process involves interbank settlement (even if instant for the user). With the Digital Rupee, the transfer is a direct movement of a digital token from one wallet to another, which is final and does not require an underlying interbank settlement process.
(c) Correct: UPI transactions are tied to traditional bank accounts and appear on standard bank statements. Digital Rupee transactions are ledger-based movements within a specific digital wallet managed by the RBI/banks, and they do not reflect in the traditional bank statement of the user's main savings/current account.

56. Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.

2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24 × 7 access, promoting financial inclusion.

3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: RWA tokenization is the process of converting the value of physical or financial assets—such as real estate, gold, bonds, or fine art—into digital tokens on a blockchain. These tokens represent fractional ownership of the underlying asset.

Statement 2 is correct: Unlike traditional financial markets that operate within specific business hours, blockchain-based tokens can be traded on secondary markets 24/7. This high liquidity and the ability to own smaller "fractions" of an expensive asset significantly lower the barrier to entry, thereby promoting broader financial inclusion.

Statement 3 is correct: Tokenization enables "fractionalization." For example, an individual who could not afford to buy a whole commercial property or a high-value private equity share can now invest in a small fraction of that asset. This democratizes access to high-growth, institutional-grade investment opportunities that were previously restricted to wealthy investors or large institutions.

57. A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:

(a) Green Bond

(b) Social Bond

(d) Sovereign Bond

Answer: c

Explanation:

Sustainability Bond: These are bonds where the proceeds are earmarked exclusively to finance or refinance a combination of both green (environmental) and social projects. They offer an integrated approach for issuers to support projects that provide clear environmental and social benefits.

Green Bond: Proceeds are used exclusively for projects with positive environmental impacts, such as renewable energy, clean transport, or pollution prevention.

Social Bond: Proceeds are used exclusively for projects with positive social outcomes, such as affordable housing, access to essential services (healthcare/education), or employment generation.

Sovereign Bond: A debt instrument issued by a national government in its own currency to finance its spending. While a sovereign bond can be a green, social, or sustainability bond (e.g., India's Sovereign Green Bonds), the term itself does not define the purpose of the funds as environmental or social.

58. Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

1. M1xchange provides collateral-based loans to MSMEs.

2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.

3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: M1xchange operates as a Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform. It facilitates collateral-free financing for MSMEs by discounting their trade receivables (invoices). It does not provide traditional collateral-based loans.

Statement 2 is correct: The primary function of M1xchange is to facilitate the discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange. It connects MSME suppliers with their corporate buyers and financiers (banks/NBFCs), allowing the MSMEs to receive early payments for their goods or services by selling their trade receivables.

Statement 3 is incorrect: M1xchange is not a credit rating agency. It is a digital platform that provides the infrastructure for trade receivables discounting. While it may use credit information to facilitate transactions, it does not perform the regulatory function of a credit rating agency (like CRISIL, ICRA, or CARE).

59. Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?

(a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending

(b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

(d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Answer: b

Explanation:

The Crowding Out Effect is a classic economic phenomenon that occurs when the government increases its spending (often financed by increased borrowing) in a way that "crowds out" or discourages private sector participation in the economy.

The Mechanism: When the government borrows heavily from the loanable funds market to fund its deficit, the increased demand for money causes the price of money—the interest rate—to rise.
The Consequence: Higher interest rates make it more expensive for private companies and individuals to borrow money for their own investments or projects. As a result, private firms reduce their capital expenditure (investment), effectively "crowding out" private investment due to the government’s dominant presence in the credit market.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(a): This describes the Crowding In Effect, where government spending stimulates economic growth and builds infrastructure (like roads or power grids) that encourages, rather than discourages, private investment.
(c): An increase in taxes typically reduces disposable income and profit margins, which generally discourages private investment rather than increasing it.
(d): Fiscal policy (government spending) is designed specifically to influence aggregate demand; saying it has "no impact" contradicts the basic principles of Keynesian macroeconomics.

60. Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).

2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.

3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.

4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Rare Earth Elements (REEs) are essential components in a wide range of modern technologies. Their unique magnetic, luminescent, and electrochemical properties make them indispensable for high-tech applications, including Artificial Intelligence (in high-performance computing hardware), robotics (in high-strength magnets for motors), and space exploration (in sensors, guidance systems, and satellite components).

Statement 2 is incorrect: While China is the dominant global leader in both the mining and processing of REEs, India is not the second-largest producer. China accounts for approximately 60–70% of global mining output and an even higher percentage of processing capacity. Other countries, such as the United States, Australia, Myanmar, and Vietnam, generally rank higher in terms of production volume than India.

Statement 3 is correct: The Government of India formally launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 (approved by the Union Cabinet on January 29, 2025). The mission is designed to secure domestic and global supply chains for critical minerals, focusing on exploration, domestic production, technology development, and international asset acquisition.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Rare Earth Elements (REEs) are not a set of 13 elements; they are a set of 17 chemical elements. This group includes the 15 lanthanide elements (lanthanum through lutetium) plus scandium and yttrium.

61. Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.

2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Aviation Hull Insurance (or "Hull All Risks" insurance) is specifically designed to cover physical damage to the aircraft itself. This includes the fuselage (body), engines, avionics, and other permanently installed equipment. It provides coverage for loss or damage occurring on the ground or in flight.

Statement 2 is correct: The Montreal Convention (1999) established a two-tiered liability system for international carriage by air.

First Tier (Strict Liability): For death or bodily injury, carriers are strictly liable for proven damages up to 128,821 Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) per passenger, regardless of fault. The family does not need to prove negligence or "fault" by the airline to receive this compensation.
Second Tier (Presumed Liability): For amounts exceeding that limit, the carrier is liable unless it can prove the damage was not due to its negligence or was solely due to the negligence of a third party.

62. Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.

2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Crowdfunding is a form of alternative finance that allows individuals or businesses to raise capital by soliciting small amounts of money from a large number of people, typically via the internet, social networking sites, or dedicated web-based platforms. It bypasses traditional financial intermediaries like banks.

Statement 2 is correct: One of the primary advantages of crowdfunding for Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) and startups is its relative cost-effectiveness. Compared to traditional bank loans—which often require significant collateral, extensive documentation, credit history checks, and rigorous formal procedures—crowdfunding provides an accessible avenue to raise capital. While it requires significant marketing effort and storytelling to succeed, it generally involves fewer formal regulatory or bureaucratic hurdles than traditional debt financing.

63. With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

Sl. No.	Committee	Objective	Organization under which it was formed
1.	R.N. Malhotra Committee	Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India	Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
2.	L.C. Gupta Committee	Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India	Securities and Exchange Board of India
3.	Urjit R. Patel Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector	Reserve Bank of India
4.	Y.H. Malegam Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India	Reserve Bank of India

In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: d

Explanation:

Row 1 (Incorrect): While the R.N. Malhotra Committee was indeed formed for the comprehensive reform of the insurance sector, it was constituted by the Government of India in 1993, not by the IRDAI (which did not exist at the time). The recommendations of this committee eventually led to the establishment of the IRDAI.

Row 2 (Correct): The L.C. Gupta Committee (1996) was appointed by SEBI to develop a regulatory framework for the introduction of derivatives trading in India.

Row 3 (Incorrect): The Urjit R. Patel Committee (2013) was formed by the RBI to examine the current monetary policy framework, specifically to revise and strengthen the monetary policy framework (focusing on inflation targeting), not to reform bank lending to the housing sector.

Row 4 (Correct): The Y.H. Malegam Committee (2011) was constituted by the RBI to study issues and concerns in the microfinance sector and suggest reforms for better regulation of Microfinance Institutions (MFIs).

64. Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India :

1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.

2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.

3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.

4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: By definition and regulation under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits (deposits that are repayable on demand, such as those in a savings or current account). They are only permitted to accept term deposits (fixed deposits) under specific conditions.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the majority of NBFCs must be registered with the RBI, there are specific categories of NBFCs that are exempt from registration, such as those regulated by other financial regulators (e.g., Venture Capital Funds, Stock Broking companies registered with SEBI, or Nidhi companies regulated by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs).

Statement 3 is incorrect: NBFCs are not part of the payment and settlement system in the same way banks are. They cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves. Customers of NBFCs generally transact through the commercial banking system.

Statement 4 is correct: The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) provides insurance cover primarily for deposits held in banks (commercial banks, cooperative banks, etc.). This facility is not available to depositors of NBFCs, which is a significant risk factor for those holding fixed deposits with them.

65. Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.

2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.

3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Alkire-Foster (AF) methodology is the foundation for both the Global MPI and India's National MPI.
Statement 2 is correct: NITI Aayog's National MPI measures poverty across 12 indicators (the standard 10 from the Global MPI, plus two additional national-priority indicators).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Maternal Health and Bank Account are not common indicators; they are specific to the National MPI and are the reason the Indian index count is 12 while the Global MPI count is 10.

66. Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.

2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.

3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The fundamental principle of genetic medicine (including gene therapy) is to address the root cause of a genetic disorder by introducing, modifying, or replacing a faulty or missing gene with a functional copy, or by using techniques to "silence" or compensate for the deleterious effects of the faulty gene.

Statement 2 is correct: Delivering genetic material into human cells is complex because DNA/RNA is fragile and cannot easily enter cells on its own. To overcome this, scientists use vectors (delivery vehicles). Engineered viruses (like Adeno-associated viruses) are commonly used because they are naturally efficient at entering cells. Lipid nanoparticles (tiny fat-based spheres) are also widely used, as they can safely encapsulate genetic material and facilitate its entry into target cells.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Genetic medicines do not "alter the entire DNA sequence." They are designed to be highly targeted. They typically aim to modify or add specific genes in specific tissues or cells related to a disease. Altering the entire DNA sequence of an organism would be scientifically unfeasible and potentially catastrophic, as it would disrupt the functioning of thousands of healthy, essential genes.

67. Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.

2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimisation to minimise prediction errors.

3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: LLMs are essentially probabilistic models. They function by predicting the next token (word or part of a word) in a sequence based on the context provided by preceding tokens. While they do not always pick the single token with the absolute highest probability (they often use techniques like "temperature" to introduce some randomness or creativity), the core mechanism involves assigning and utilizing these probability distributions to construct coherent text.

Statement 2 is correct: The training process of an LLM is a massive optimization problem. During training, the model processes vast amounts of data and uses mathematical algorithms (such as backpropagation and gradient descent) to adjust its internal parameters (weights). The primary objective is to minimize the difference (error) between the model's prediction and the actual text in the training data.

Statement 3 is incorrect: LLMs are not inherently unbiased. They are trained on vast datasets crawled from the internet, which inevitably contain human biases, cultural stereotypes, and historical prejudices. Because these models learn to replicate patterns found in their training data, they frequently reproduce or even amplify these existing biases in their outputs. Significant research and ongoing efforts in AI safety (like Reinforcement Learning from Human Feedback, or RLHF) are dedicated to mitigating, though not entirely eliminating, these biases.

68. Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.

2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.

3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The primary goal of stealth technology is to reduce the "detectability" of an object. This is achieved by designing the shape of the object to have a very small Radar Cross-Section (RCS)—which minimizes the amount of radar energy reflected back to the source—and by applying Radar Absorbing Material (RAM), which converts incident radar energy into heat rather than reflecting it.

Statement 2 is correct: Stealth technology is not perfect "invisibility." It is optimized to defeat specific types of radar, particularly high-frequency radar (like X-band or Ku-band). However, stealth objects can often be detected using specific frequencies, such as long-wavelength (Low-frequency/VHF/UHF) radar, which can be less affected by the geometric shaping designed for higher frequencies.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Stealth technology aims to minimize (or control) the scattering of electromagnetic radiation, not increase it. Metamaterials used in stealth applications are designed to guide electromagnetic waves around the object (a concept known as "cloaking") or absorb them, specifically to reduce backscatter and radar return, rather than increasing scattering, which would make the object more visible to sensors.

69. Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.

2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.

3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Black boxes do not emit "red light pulses." They are equipped with Underwater Locator Beacons (ULBs) that emit ultrasonic acoustic pulses (sound waves), not light. These acoustic pulses are detectable by sonar equipment underwater, which is crucial for locating the devices in deep-sea wreckage.

Statement 2 is correct: Modern aircraft carry two primary types of "black boxes" (which are actually painted bright orange to aid visibility):

Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR): Records radio transmissions and sounds in the cockpit, such as pilot voices, engine noises, and alarms.
Flight Data Recorder (FDR): Records dozens of flight parameters, including altitude, airspeed, heading, vertical acceleration, and control surface positions.

Statement 3 is correct: To survive extreme conditions—such as high-impact crashes, intense fires (up to 1,100°C), and deep-sea pressure—the memory units containing the critical data are housed in high-strength, crash-protected containers made from durable materials like stainless steel or titanium.

70. Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).

2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.

3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The process of producing hydrogen from natural gas reforming combined with Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) is known as Blue Hydrogen. Green Hydrogen is distinct because it does not rely on fossil fuel feedstocks.

Statement 2 is correct: Green Hydrogen is produced through the electrolysis of water using electricity derived entirely from renewable energy sources (like solar, wind, or hydropower), resulting in zero carbon emissions during the production process.

Statement 3 is correct: The National Green Hydrogen Mission, launched by the Government of India, includes a target to reduce (abate) nearly 50 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes) of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030, alongside achieving a production capacity of at least 5 MMT of green hydrogen per annum.

71. Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme:

1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.

2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.

3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous nodal agency under the Department of Space, Government of India. Its primary mandate is to act as a single-window interface to promote, authorize, and facilitate private sector participation in the Indian space sector.

Statement 2 is correct: Agnikul Cosmos, an Indian space-tech startup, successfully completed the maiden flight of its rocket, Agnibaan SOrTeD (Sub-Orbital Technological Demonstrator), in May 2024. This rocket featured the world's first flight of a fully 3D-printed semi-cryogenic rocket engine.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Skyroot Aerospace is known for developing the Vikram series of launch vehicles, which utilize their own proprietary rocket engines (such as the Dhavan-1 and Raman engines). However, they have not developed liquid fuel for the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle). The GSLV is an ISRO-developed launch vehicle, and its liquid/cryogenic stages are developed by ISRO.

72. Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.

2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.

3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Drone swarms typically communicate with a command center and with each other using Radio Frequency (RF) bands (such as 2.4 GHz or 5.8 GHz, which are common for Wi-Fi and specialized data links) or Satellite Communication (SATCOM) for long-range operations. The Terahertz (THz) band (often defined between 0.1 and 10 THz) is a frontier technology currently being researched for high-speed, short-range communications due to its massive bandwidth, but it is not currently the standard or primary frequency band used for drone swarm communication with a command center.

Statement 2 is correct: A defining characteristic of a drone swarm is decentralized coordination. Individual drones are capable of "inter-drone" communication, which allows them to share situational awareness, adjust flight paths to avoid collisions, and maintain the collective formation of the swarm without needing to rely entirely on instructions from a central controller.

Statement 3 is correct: GPS Spoofing is a well-known counter-drone technique. By broadcasting counterfeit GPS signals, defenders can deceive the drones' navigation systems, causing them to deviate from their intended flight path, lose orientation, or land prematurely. It is an effective method used in electronic warfare to neutralize incoming drone threats.

73. Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.

2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.

3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The GenomeIndia Project is not a part of the international Human Genome Project. The Human Genome Project was an international scientific research project that successfully mapped and sequenced the human species as a whole (completed in 2003). The GenomeIndia Project is a distinct, indigenous initiative focused specifically on creating a reference genome that captures the unique genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Statement 2 is correct: The project is spearheaded and funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. It is a national mission to create a comprehensive database of Indian genetic markers.

Statement 3 is correct: The primary objective of the project is to build a detailed catalogue of the genetic diversity across India’s diverse ethnic groups and geographic regions. This database is intended to support precision medicine, identify genetic predispositions to specific diseases prevalent in India, and advance healthcare research tailored to the Indian population.

74. Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 – 1000 physical qubits.

2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A core technical objective of the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers. The mission specifically targets the development of quantum systems with 50 to 1000 physical qubits over a period of 8 years. This is a critical step toward achieving fault-tolerant quantum computing.

Statement 2 is correct: To achieve its scientific and technological goals, the NQM is implemented through the establishment of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs). These hubs are strategically positioned in top-tier academic institutions and national R&D laboratories across India, focusing on specific domains: Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing and Metrology, and Quantum Materials and Devices.

75. Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.

2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.

3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. The mission is a multi-disciplinary initiative aimed at exploring the deep ocean for resources and developing technologies for deep-sea activities.

Statement 2 is correct: Matsya-6000 is the manned submersible vehicle developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, as part of the Samudrayaan project. It is designed to carry three people to a depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean to conduct deep-sea exploration and research.

Statement 3 is correct: Samudrayaan is a flagship project under the Deep Ocean Mission. It is India's first manned deep-ocean mission, aimed at sending humans to explore the deep-sea ecosystem and search for resources like polymetallic nodules.

76. Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions ?

(a) Esprit de corps

(b) Equity

(d) Delegation

Answer: c

Explanation:

Accountability: This principle refers to the obligation of a public official to answer for the execution of their responsibilities, to act in the public interest, and to be answerable for their decisions. By reporting the quality compromise and halting the contract, Mr. X demonstrated ethical accountability. He took responsibility for the integrity of the vaccination programme, ensuring that the service provider was held to the standard expected of public service, regardless of external pressure.

Why the other options are less applicable:

(a) Esprit de corps: This refers to the promotion of team spirit and harmony within an organization. While Mr. X's actions might have been for the "greater good," the principle of Esprit de corps focuses more on internal cohesion rather than the ethical obligation to answer for public welfare.
(b) Equity: This refers to fairness and impartiality in treatment. While his actions ensured equitable access to safe vaccines for all citizens, the act of reporting and taking responsibility for the contract is fundamentally an act of accountability.
(d) Delegation: This involves the transfer of authority and responsibility from a superior to a subordinate. Mr. X’s actions were about exercising his own authority and responsibility, not transferring them.

77. In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.
As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.
Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.

2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.

3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.

4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: In conflicts involving indigenous or tribal communities, the recognition of cultural identity and sacred land is a prerequisite for building trust. If an official ignores these concerns in favor of technical arguments, the community will likely disengage, and the conflict will escalate. Acknowledgment serves as a gesture of respect and a necessary foundation for any constructive negotiation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: This approach violates the principles of inclusive governance and sustainable development. Dismissing tribal rights as merely "sentiments of a small group" creates structural injustice and fuels long-term alienation. A democratic government must seek a consensus or a "win-win" solution that protects public health without violating the fundamental rights or cultural heritage of vulnerable populations.

Statement 3 is correct: A multi-stakeholder dialogue platform is essential for de-escalation. It provides a forum where the urban residents’ needs (sanitation/health) and the tribal community’s concerns (rights/identity) can be articulated and understood by the "other side." This moves the conflict from a confrontational street-level struggle to a deliberative negotiation.

Statement 4 is correct: Evidence-based decision-making is critical to stripping away bias and fear. An independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) provides objective data regarding whether the facility truly poses an environmental threat to the hamlet and helps explore potential mitigation strategies or alternative locations, reducing the scope for rumor-mongering and social media-driven misinformation.

78. Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.
What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public

2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity

3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

This is an ethics-based administrative dilemma involving:

transparency,
confidentiality,
procedural fairness,
public trust, and
responsible governance.

Option 1:

Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public

Not fully appropriate

The allegations are not legally proven.
Immediate public disclosure may violate principles of:

natural justice,
confidentiality,
due process,
and administrative propriety.

It could unfairly damage the contractor’s reputation without verified evidence.

Option 2:

Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist

Not appropriate at this stage

Mere allegations without evidence cannot justify outright removal.
Administrative decisions should be based on:

verified records,
formal inquiries,
objective criteria,
and procedural fairness.

Option 3:

Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee while keeping the information confidential from the public temporarily

Most ethical and balanced approach

This option:

preserves confidentiality,
ensures institutional accountability,
allows proper scrutiny by competent authorities,
balances transparency with due process,
and protects public interest without causing premature reputational harm.

This reflects core civil service ethics:

integrity,
responsibility,
prudence,
accountability,
and fairness.

Therefore, the best answer is:

(b) 3 only

79. 'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.
Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a) 'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.

(b) The view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.

(d) The view of only 'Y' is correct.

Answer: d

Explanation:

Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution of India defines the term "law" for the purposes of Article 13.

The article explicitly states: "‘law’ includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law."

'X' is incorrect because they failed to recognize that "custom or usage" is explicitly included in the definition.

'Y' is correct because they correctly identified that the term "law" under Article 13 includes customs or usages that have the force of law in India.

80. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.

2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.

3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

Answer: b

Explanation:

All three statements provided in the question are factually incorrect based on the final provisions of the Constitution of India (Part XXII):

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 393, titled "Short title," explicitly states: "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India." Thus, the Constitution does specify its official short title.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 395, titled "Repeals," expressly revokes prior colonial-era legislation. It explicitly states that the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935, together with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter, are hereby repealed.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 394, titled "Commencement," explicitly names the "twenty-sixth day of January, 1950" as the date upon which the remaining provisions of the Constitution come into force, and it states that this day "is referred to in this Constitution as the commencement of this Constitution."

81. Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.

2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.

3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 2016, not 2018. While it does mandate reservations in education and employment and places a duty on the government to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination, the incorrect year makes the statement false.

Statement 2 is correct: The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign), launched by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD), is a nation-wide campaign focused on achieving universal accessibility across three key pillars: the built-up environment, the transportation system, and the information and communication ecosystem.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is an apex corporation under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Its primary objective is the economic empowerment of persons with disabilities by providing concessional financial assistance for self-employment and skill development.

82. Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.

3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

(d) All three statements are correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram is provided for in the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth Schedule. The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than these four.

Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, certain members of Scheduled Tribes (specifically those residing in specified areas like Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, or the districts of North Cachar Hills, Mikir Hills, Khasi Hills, Jaintia Hills, and Garo Hills) are exempt from income tax on income accruing from sources within these areas or by way of dividend or interest on securities.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 243D of the Constitution of India mandates the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in every Panchayat in proportion to their population. Furthermore, it explicitly provides that not less than one-third of the total number of seats reserved for SCs/STs shall be reserved for women belonging to the SCs/STs.

83. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.

2. Starred questions are those to which Member desires a written answer.

3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All the three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The description is swapped. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House, and a supplementary question can follow.

Statement 2 is incorrect: This is also swapped. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.

Statement 3 is correct: Since unstarred questions receive a written answer and are not called for oral response in the House, no supplementary questions can be asked on them.

84. Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.

3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.

4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are four correct statements.

(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from amongst the members elected to the Committee, not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The composition of the Committee is actually the reverse in terms of the number of members from each House: it consists of 30 members, with 20 elected by the Lok Sabha and 10 elected by the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 3 is incorrect: A Minister is not eligible to be elected as a member of this Committee. This rule applies to all parliamentary financial and standing committees to ensure independent oversight. If a member is appointed as a Minister after their election to the committee, they automatically cease to be a member.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Members of this Committee are elected for a term of one year, not two years.

85. Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.

2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.

3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Mission Sudarshan Chakra is designed to integrate and enhance India’s Air Defence (AD), Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD), and aerial offensive capabilities. It aims to create a unified, multi-layered security umbrella capable of identifying, tracking, and neutralizing diverse threats.

Statement 2 is correct: The mission is fundamentally aimed at enabling rapid, precise, and powerful defensive and retaliatory responses. By focusing on indigenous development and manufacturing, it directly reinforces India’s strategic autonomy and reduces reliance on foreign defence systems.

Statement 3 is correct: Announced by the Prime Minister on August 15, 2025, the mission explicitly includes the objective of creating an expanded nationwide security shield. Official government communications and policy documents related to the initiative state that this shield is intended to cover critical national sites and public places across India by 2035 to ensure comprehensive protection for the nation’s population and infrastructure.

86. Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.

2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.

3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the 'Maitri Setu' is indeed built over the Feni River, it connects Sabroom in India (Tripura) with Ramgarh in Bangladesh. The statement in the prompt incorrectly states it connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Jhulaghat suspension bridge does not connect India with Myanmar. It is located on the Mahakali River and connects India (Uttarakhand) with Nepal.

Statement 3 is correct: The Mechi Bridge and its approaches are a significant infrastructure project connecting the Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal. It is a critical link for cross-border connectivity and is part of the Asian Highway 02.

87. Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.

2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.

3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, provides for the registration of an FIR for any cognizable offence, "irrespective of the area where the offence is committed." This codifies the concept of Zero FIR, allowing an informant to lodge a complaint at any police station regardless of territorial jurisdiction.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the BNSS allows for a preliminary enquiry under specific circumstances (such as for offences punishable with imprisonment of three years or more but less than seven years, per Section 173(3)), this is a general procedure for the registration of FIRs. It is not a requirement or specific procedural step tied uniquely to the lodging of a Zero FIR.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Section 173(1) of the BNSS, information regarding a cognizable offence can be given orally, in writing, or by electronic communication. While electronic filing is now statutorily recognized, the law does not make it obligatory for an informant to furnish information only through electronic means.

88. With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

Sl. No.	Organisation	Function	Controlling Union Ministry
1.	Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)	To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies	Ministry of Home Affairs
2.	Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)	To investigate complex corporate frauds	Ministry of Finance MCA
3.	Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)	To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy	Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) None

Answer: a

Explanation:

Let us examine each row carefully.

1. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)

Aspect	Given	Actual
Function	Coordination among law enforcement agencies	Correct
Ministry	Ministry of Home Affairs	Incorrect

Central Economic Intelligence Bureau coordinates intelligence and enforcement activities relating to economic offences among agencies like DRI, ED, CBDT, CBIC, etc.
However, it functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Row 1 is incorrect.

2. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)

Aspect	Given	Actual
Function	Investigate complex corporate frauds	Correct
Ministry	Ministry of Finance MCA	Incorrect

Serious Fraud Investigation Office investigates serious corporate frauds under the Companies Act.
It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), not the Ministry of Finance.

Row 2 is incorrect.

3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

Aspect	Given	Actual
Function	Preserve values in public life and ensure health of national economy	Correct
Ministry	Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions	Correct

Central Bureau of Investigation officially states its motto/objective as:

“Industry, Impartiality, Integrity”
and aims to combat corruption and preserve integrity in public administration and the economy.

It functions under the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) in the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

Row 3 is correctly matched.

89. Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

1. Employment Policy Convention

2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention

3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families

4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War

5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3, 4 and 5

Answer: x

Explanation:

Based on the actual ratification status of India, the correct analysis is:

Employment Policy Convention (ILO Convention No. 122)
Ratified by India in 1998.
Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (ILO Convention No. 105)
Ratified by India in 2000.
International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
Not ratified by India.
Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War (Fourth Geneva Convention, 1949)
Ratified by India. India is a party to all four Geneva Conventions.
Convention on Reduction of Statelessness (1961)
Not ratified by India.

Thus, the conventions not ratified by India are:

3 and 5 only

However, this combination is not present in the options provided.

90. Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi :

1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress.

2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.

3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Summit's intellectual framework was anchored in three foundational "Sutras" (guiding principles): People, Planet, and Progress. The statement incorrectly lists "Planning" instead of "Planet."

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI is recognized in the New Delhi Declaration as a voluntary and non-binding framework, not a binding one. Its purpose is to facilitate equitable access to foundational AI resources (such as datasets and computing power) while respecting the national sovereignty of participating nations.

Statement 3 is correct: The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was indeed structured around seven "Chakras" (Pillars) to guide global cooperation. These include:

Democratizing AI Resources
Economic Growth and Social Good
Secure and Trusted AI
AI for Science
Access for Social Empowerment
Human Capital Development
Resilient, Efficient, and Innovative AI Systems

91. Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project

2. IMT Trilateral Highway

3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project (Correct): This project connects the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with the Sittwe seaport in Myanmar. Because Myanmar is a member of ASEAN, this project is a key component of India's physical connectivity initiatives under its Act East Policy to strengthen ties with the ASEAN region.

2. IMT Trilateral Highway (Correct): The India-Myanmar-Thailand (IMT) Trilateral Highway is a flagship connectivity project designed to link Moreh (India) with Mae Sot (Thailand) via Myanmar. As both Myanmar and Thailand are ASEAN member states, this highway directly facilitates regional integration between India and the ASEAN bloc.

3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line (Incorrect): This project is a bilateral connectivity initiative between India and Bangladesh. While it is a significant infrastructure project for improving connectivity in India's northeastern region, Bangladesh is not a member of ASEAN; therefore, it does not fall under the scope of "India-ASEAN" cooperation projects.

92. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Project Supported by India)	List II (Country)
A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project	1. Maldives
B. Restoration of Stor Palace	2. Afghanistan
C. District Hospital at Dickoya	3. Bhutan
D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies	4. Sri Lanka

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	1	4	2	3
(b)	3	2	4	1
(c)	3	4	2	1
(d)	1	2	4	3

Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct match between the projects supported by India and their respective countries is as follows:

A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project: 3. Bhutan
B. Restoration of Stor Palace: 2. Afghanistan
C. District Hospital at Dickoya: 4. Sri Lanka
D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies: 1. Maldives

93. Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets

2. T-90 MK-III Tanks

3. Akula Class Submarine

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 2 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets (Manufactured in India): Correct. While the design is Russian, India's Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) produces the Su-30 MKI under a license agreement at its manufacturing facilities in Nashik (aircraft) and Koraput (engines).

2. T-90 MK-III Tanks (Manufactured in India): Correct. The T-90 (indigenously known as "Bhishma") is produced in India at the Heavy Vehicles Factory (HVF) in Avadi, Tamil Nadu. The T-90 MK-III represents an upgraded version of the platform, which is also produced and upgraded domestically at the same facility.

3. Akula Class Submarine (Not manufactured in India): Incorrect. The Akula class is a Russian-designed nuclear-powered attack submarine. India does not manufacture these submarines; rather, it has leased them from Russia (e.g., INS Chakra and its successors) to augment its naval capabilities while developing its own indigenous submarine programs (such as the Arihant class).

94. Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.

2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.

3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

Answer: c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Colombo Process is a Regional Consultative Process (RCP) on the management of overseas employment and contractual labour for Asian countries of origin. While it operates by consensus, it is strictly a non-binding consultative forum. It does not have the authority to take binding decisions that member states are legally obligated to follow.

Statement 2 is correct: The Abu Dhabi Dialogue (ADD) is indeed a voluntary, non-binding, and inter-governmental consultative process. It serves as a forum for dialogue and cooperation between Asian countries of labour origin (the Colombo Process member states) and major destination countries (specifically Gulf Cooperation Council nations and Malaysia) to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility, fair recruitment, and worker protection.

Statement 3 is correct: The Global Forum for Migration and Development (GFMD) was established following a proposal by former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan during the 2006 UN General Assembly High-Level Dialogue. It is a state-led, voluntary, informal, and non-binding process that operates outside the formal UN system to discuss the linkages between migration and development.

95. Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

1. World Food Programme

2. United Nations Children's Fund

3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

4. International Labour Organisation

How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

Answer: a

Explanation:

World Food Programme (WFP): Awarded the Nobel Peace Prize once (2020).
United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF): Awarded the Nobel Peace Prize once (1965).
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR): Awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice (1954 and 1981).
International Labour Organisation (ILO): Awarded the Nobel Peace Prize once (1969).

Among the organisations listed, only the UNHCR has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice. Therefore, the total count is 1.

96. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation)	List II (Period of Operation)
A. UNMIL	1. 2007 - 2010
B. MINURCAT	2. 2002 - 2005
C. MINUSTAH	3. 2003 - 2018
D. UNMISET	4. 2004 - 2017

Code :

	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	4	1	2
(b)	3	1	4	2
(c)	2	1	4	3
(d)	2	4	1	3

Answer: b

Explanation:

A. UNMIL (United Nations Mission in Liberia): 3. 2003 – 2018

B. MINURCAT (United Nations Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad): 1. 2007 – 2010

C. MINUSTAH (United Nations Stabilization Mission in Haiti): 4. 2004 – 2017

D. UNMISET (United Nations Mission of Support in East Timor): 2. 2002 – 2005

97. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment)	List II (Location)
A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory	1. NOIDA
B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre	2. Bengaluru
C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate	3. Colombo
D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility	4. Thimphu

Code :

	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	2	1	4
(b)	3	1	2	4
(c)	4	2	1	3
(d)	4	1	2	3

Answer: c

Explanation:

Based on the official information from the BIMSTEC website, the correct matching is:

A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory → 4. Thimphu (Bhutan)
B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre → 2. Bengaluru (India)
C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate → 1. NOIDA (India)
D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility → 3. Colombo (Sri Lanka)

98. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(Indian Army Corps)	(Headquarters)
(a) 3 Corps	: Dimapur
(b) 4 Corps	: Tezpur
(c) 14 Corps	: Leh
(d) 33 Corps	: Srinagar

Answer: d

Solution:

3 Corps: Correctly matched to Dimapur (Nagaland).
4 Corps: Correctly matched to Tezpur (Assam).
14 Corps: Correctly matched to Leh (Ladakh).
33 Corps: Incorrectly matched in the options. The 33 Corps (also known as the Trishakti Corps) is headquartered in Sukna (near Siliguri), West Bengal.

99. Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.

2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.

3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The implementation period for the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026. It is co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission cycle.

Statement 2 is Correct: A primary objective of the Revamped RGSA is to enhance the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) through "Localization of SDGs" at the grassroots level.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The funding for the Revamped RGSA follows the established pattern for Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS), not 100% central funding for all states. For general category states, the funding ratio is 60:40 (Centre:State). For North Eastern States, Hilly States, and the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, it is 90:10. Only for other Union Territories is the Central share 100%.

100. Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

1. Belarus

2. Poland

3. Germany

4. Switzerland

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: c

Explanation:

1. Belarus: Not a member of the European Union.

2. Poland: Member (joined in 2004).

3. Germany: Member (a founding member of the European Coal and Steel Community, the predecessor to the EU).

4. Switzerland: Not a member of the European Union. While it is part of the European Single Market through various bilateral treaties and is a member of the Schengen Area, it is not a member state of the EU.

UPSC PRELIMS 2026 Provisional Key With Explanations

UPSC General Studies Paper Set-D Questions with Explanations

1. Consider the following assertion:

2. What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

3. Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

4. Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

5. Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ?

6. Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

7. Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

8. Consider the following assertion:The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

9. Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

10. In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate?

11. Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

12. The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

13. Consider the following statements:I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, hamsa, and kakanika.

14. Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

15. Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

16. The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

17. Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:

18. Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:

19. Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

20. Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:

21. Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

22. With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

23. With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

24. Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

25. Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:

26. Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :

27. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

29. Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

30. Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

31. Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change:

32. With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

33. Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

34. In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy?

35. Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

36. Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

37. Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

38. Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

39. Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

40. Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

41. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

42. Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

43. The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

44. Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

45. The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?

46. 'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X' :

47. Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

48. Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?

49. Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct?

50. Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong' :

51. Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

52. An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:

53. Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

54. Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?

55. Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

56. Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

57. A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:

58. Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

59. Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?

60. Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

61. Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

62. Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

63. With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

64. Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India :

65. Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

66. Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

67. Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

68. Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

69. Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

70. Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

71. Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme:

72. Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

73. Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

74. Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

75. Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

80. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.

81. Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

82. Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

83. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

8. Consider the following assertion:
The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

13. Consider the following statements:
I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, hamsa, and kakanika.

**55. Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?**

80. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.